So here you are making inference on comparing the means of two populations, using two samples.
In this case, it's reasonable to assume the two samples are independent, right?
Usually the estimator for the mean follows normal distribution, and we do can do a z-test, if the variance is known, or a t-test, if the variance is unknown.
H0: mu1-mu2=0
z = (xbar1-xbar2-0) /square root of (Var1 + Var2)
But in this case, the estimator for the mean(Odds Ratio) follows lognormal distribution, right?
We do something similar to the above, but slightly different. Hypothesis test for lognormal distribution is not common. I can refer you to a 2003 paper which is not long, only 19 pages.
It answers your question on page 9-10.
K. Krishnamoorthy and Thomas Mathew (2003), "Inferences on the means of lognormal distributions using generalized p-values and generalized confidence intervals", Journal of Statistical Planning and Inference 115 (2003) 103 – 121
Hope this helps.
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