我的理解是,y(t,vt)是个鞅,根据ito foemula求出它的微分,然后其漂移项为零,最后得出偏微分方程。但为什么我求出来没有p(u2)vy这项?求大家帮忙解答一下,谢谢了哦。(vt是不是不满足ito fomula的条件,故不能用ito formula求y的微分?)
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楼主: cyl88
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[讨论交流] 请问怎样用Feynman–Kac formula? |
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回帖推荐Chemist_MZ 发表于2楼 查看完整内容 The problem may be that y(v,t) is not a martingale,
but if you multiply y by exp(p(u2)∫(0 to t)vs ds),y*exp(p(u2)∫(0 to t)vs ds) will be a martingale. That's why you miss a term there. (Just my first glance, perhaps not correct).
If you have trouble for verifying that y*exp(p(u2)∫(0 to t)vs ds) is a martingale, come back to me.
best,
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