Question:
I have a linear regression (say) model p(t|x;w) = N(t ; m , D); Being Bayesian, I can put a Gaussian prior on parameter w. However, I've realized for some models we can put Gaussian-Wishart hyperprior on the Gaussian to be 'more' Bayesian. Is this correct ? Are both of these two models valid Bayesian models ? It seems to me that we can always put hyperprior, hyperhyperprior ......because it will still be a valid probabilistic model.I am wondering what's the difference between putting a prior and putting the hyperprior on the prior. Are they both Bayesian ?