就单说γ是一个1,0,-1的哑变量,这样设定的话,相当于假定英国银行国有化和非英国银行国有化对被解释变量的作用是等量的。
凭什么这么设定?
文章给出这个解释:Financial protectionism is expected to result in British banks increasing the
share of British loans in their loan portfolios following nationalization; symmetrically, foreign banks are expected to reduce the British share of their loan mix.
That is, we construct our dummy variable such that financial protectionism,
if it exists, appears as a positive and significant γ 。但这也只是说明在作用方向上可以构造这么一个对称的哑变量,而在量上没有特别说明。
求教!还是我对哑变量的理解有偏差?


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