by the way, if the correction term is insignificant, it is consistent with the theory
because error correction term just describe the change in one variable relates to the past equilibrium errors, and we would expect the error is I(0), even zero
fj102 said that "if the error adjust term is insignificant, that means it is perfect cointegrated", i understand that "perfect cointegrated" means there is no ECM for the variables which are perfect cointegrated. Right or wrong ?