0. 1. 2
---------------------------+-----------------------+
(100-20) Int = 80*.12
Beg of 1st Beg of 2nd
我也做错,非要理解答案的话看成 annuity begin (compare to annuity due which we normally use)
0是第一年的开始,所以第二年的int是在1坐标上。
回家翻书店看看书,确定我们平时做的int exp的题是不是都是年底给的。如果是的话这样应该没理解错。
0. 1. 2
|___________|__________|
(100-20). Int:80*12
Beg 1st. Beg 2nd
我第一次也跟楼主一样,但是如果按照annuity begin 的想法去理解(compare to annuity due we normally used), 第一年start at 0,2000 paid and no interest 因为借款才开始。第二年start at 坐标1。
回家翻翻书看看我们平时书上的例题是不是都是pay at the end。
0. 1. 2
|___________|__________|
(100-20). Int:80*12
Beg 1st. Beg 2nd
我第一次也跟楼主一样,但是如果按照annuity begin 的想法去理解(compare to annuity due we normally used), 第一年start at 0,2000 paid and no interest 因为借款才开始。第二年start at 坐标1。
回家翻翻书看看我们平时书上的例题是不是都是pay at the end。
0. 1. 2
|___________|__________|
(100-20). Int:80*12
Beg 1st. Beg 2nd
我第一次也跟楼主一样,但是如果按照annuity begin 的想法去理解(compare to annuity due we normally used), 第一年start at 0,2000 paid and no interest 因为借款才开始。第二年start at 坐标1。
回家翻翻书看看我们平时书上的例题是不是都是pay at the end。
第8题,个人觉得主要是因为the hedge fund can trade after US market close, 所以会有fail dealing和material nonpublic information的问题。
第59题,差别在2,000 pays at the beginning of the year. But,1104 is caculated based on the assumption that the 2,000 annual payment made at the end of the year. So, It is actually the same difference between the ordinary annuity and annuity due, the inerest expense must not be 1104, but be lower, choose A.