这不是马甲 发表于 2014-3-14 17:52 
太谢谢了!
讲得好清楚,就是还有一个小小的问题:
在(1)的计算中,使用的50%average yield in the l ...
sorry for misunderstanding, it's forward-looking yield originally,
Forward-looking yield = average of yields of long term fixed interest securities issued by the national government of the country in which currency the liabilities are denominated over the 3-year period ending on (and including) the valuation date
but there is one statement published by ASHK at 2011:
ASHK recommended approach may be adopted for determining the reinvestment yield in the actuarial valuation reports, initially, in respect of financial years 2008, 2009 and 2010. Administrative experience gathered in these years shall be reviewed with regards to the evolving interest rate environment with a view to determining the robustness of the approach for the purposes of the Regulation
that's "last 3 year" comes from
And following are other documents for references:
B.pdf
(52.76 KB)
C.pdf
(105.73 KB)
D.pdf
(547.79 KB)
E.pdf
(1.44 MB)
As liability discount rate, may be depends on what's purpose,
use risk-free rate from HKMA (so called Govt. bond yield) could be prudent if allowable,
otherwise, actuary may have to made liquidity premium assumption under his professional views