It is for pricing purpose under the no arbitrage pricing framework
Basically if the market is complete it indicates no arbitrage opportunity and uniqueness of risk neutral measure. The advantage of this assumption is it can reduce the complexity of modeling. If the market is complete, your modeling can be limited in the scope of the fundamental assets and the derivatives. In BS's case it is option, underlying equity and cash instrument. As long as you can replicate the option with the stock and cash instrument, you find the option's price. But if the market is incomplete, because people can not hedge all the risk of the derivative, the remaining "price" of the unhedged risk actually depends on many exogenous factors like people's risk preference. That will make the model fall back to equilibrium modeling in economics. In finance, especially in mathematical finance, people usually do in the no arbitrage way because that will enable many math convenience and beauty of the model.
Complete means the number of your fundamental assets is the same as the number of independent risk source e.g. brownian motion. I don't know why people call it "complete" but from my perspective maybe it is because in that market people can completely eliminate the risk via hedging.
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